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Post by jimmie on Mar 1, 2016 7:15:52 GMT -8
A tool used to find the biblical meaning of a word is to look at how that word is paralleled with other words in poetical passages. In the following verses mercy will be underlined and the word that it is paralleled with will be in bold.
Have mercy upon me, O LORD; for I am weak: O LORD, heal me; for my bones are vexed. (KJV, Psalm 6:2)
Hear, O LORD, and have mercy upon me: LORD, be thou my helper. (KJV, Psalm 30:10)
But thou, O LORD, be merciful unto me, and raise me up, that I may requite them. (KJV, Psalm 41:10)
Be merciful unto me, O God, be merciful unto me: for my soul trusteth in thee: yea, in the shadow of thy wings will I make my refuge, until these calamities be overpast. (KJV, Psalm 57:1)
O turn unto me, and have mercy upon me; give thy strength unto thy servant, and save the son of thine handmaid. (KJV, Psalm 86:16)
Through this process we find that this mercy is paralleled with such ideas as healing, help, being lifted up, finding refuge, strength and salvation (literally rescued).
Mercy {from Latin meaning reward} Kind and compassionate treatment of a person under one’s power. Something for which to be thankful. Mercy emphasizes compassion in a general way; it suggests reprieve from a fate of considerable severity, without further implication.
Matthew 18:33 Shouldest not thou also have had compassion on thy fellowservant, even as I had pity on thee?
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Post by jimmie on Feb 18, 2016 15:23:44 GMT -8
Jesus met with the scribes and Pharisees as well as publicans an sinners. He even describes their prayers. I think Reuel said it well in the last paragraph of the original post.
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Post by jimmie on Feb 4, 2016 9:28:13 GMT -8
Jeroboam ("provoker of the people") was the son of Nebat ("sight" or "aspect"), a member of the Tribe of Ephraim ("double fruit"). His mothers named was Zeruah ("lepros") and was a widow.
Are you saying Jeroboam was adopted by Solomon ("peace"), thus the brother of Reboboam ("rider of the people")?
That is something I have not thought of, but makes since.
Good study.
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Post by jimmie on Jan 29, 2016 6:19:18 GMT -8
Were have I ever said that I hate the term Rabbi or any term for that matter?
Rabbi simply means master and Jesus was one. John 1:38
And I like all of those terms and others such as saint, faithful, church, beloved, servant, elect and others as well.
I would like you to address the main thrust of my post:
If Christian = excretion of Christ
then why doesn't
Corinthians = excretion of Corinth? Galatians = excretion of Galat? Ephesians = excretion of Ephesus? Colossians = excretion of Coloss? Thessalonians = excretion of Thessalonica?
It seems more logical that Christian means resident of Christ or one who dwells in Christ. Just as Corinthian means a resident of Corinth or one who dwells in Corinth.
By the why I never claimed that Christian was not a term used to slam The Way. Baptist call themselves a term that was used to slam them. What man means for evil, God can use for good.
Where does it say that others were calling the believers Christians? From the text, we don't know who was using the term. Only that it was used.
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Post by jimmie on Jan 28, 2016 16:04:13 GMT -8
Very interesting. But I would have the follow questions for them.
So Paul nearly persuaded Agrippa to become the excretion of Christ? Acts 26:28
Corinthians = excretion of Corinth? Galatians = excretion of Galat? Ephesians = excretion of Ephesus? Colossians = excretion of Coloss? Thessalonians = excretion of Thessalonica?
It would appear that Christian means a resident of Christ.
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Post by jimmie on Jan 27, 2016 10:55:07 GMT -8
David is not a translation. But, yes the transliteration/untranslated "David" does not bring the Hebrew meaning into the English.
Agreed, and if Melech Dovid was fully translated, it would be better reflected in the English as well.
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Post by jimmie on Jan 27, 2016 5:58:50 GMT -8
I think you may have overlooked some of my statements that affirm some of the Pharisees actions. I have relisted them below. But then it (the Bible) is also filled with stories about their success.
However Jesus affirms that they (the Pharisees) are correct in giving their tithes of the spices.
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Post by jimmie on Jan 26, 2016 15:39:11 GMT -8
The following was adopted from an article by: Jeff A. Benner. The Hebrew word for a “name” is שם (shem, Strong's #8034). The Hebrew word נשמה (neshamah, Strong's #5397) is formed by adding the letters מ (m) and ה (h) to the word שם (shem). This word is used in Genesis 2:7 and means “breath”. And the LORD God formed the man of dust from the ground and he blew in his nostrils the breath (נשמה) of life and the man became a living soul. While the worldly mind simply sees “breath” as the exchange of air within the lungs, the Bible relates an understanding of “breath” in an entirely different way as can be seen in Job 32:8: The wind within man and the breath (נשמה) of the Almighty teach them. Our worldly understanding of breath does not easily grasp the concept that a breath can teach. The “breath” of both men and God has the ability to carry thought and emotion from a Biblical view point. A “name” is a person’s “breath,” his character. A common mistake when reading the Bible is to make a distinction between a name and a title. For example, “King David”, is often understood as containing the “name” “David” (an identifier) and his “title,” “King”. The Hebrew word דויד (david) literally means; “beloved”, or “one who loves” and is descriptive of David's character. The Hebrew word מלך (melek) literally means “ruler” or “one who rules”, and is also descriptive of David's character. The Hebrews made no such distinction between a name and a title. The phrase “King David” is Biblically understood as “the one who rules is the one who loves”, a very fitting title for the great benevolent king of Israel and the friend of God. Compare this to Melchizedek were king is left untranslated and is part of the name. It means “the one who rules is my righteousness.” Bible names have meanings that are lost when untranslated into English. The Hebrew word אדם (adam, Strong's #120), means “man” and is also the name of the first man, Adam. “The LORD God formed the man אדם (adam, Strong's #120) from the dust of the ground”. (Genesis 2.7) Biblical understanding is enhanced when the connection between the “man” and his origin is established. When we place the meaning of the name back into the text, we can see the connection between the words in the verse. And the LORD formed the אדם (Adam, Strong's #120) from the dust of אדמה (adamah, Strong's #127 - ground). (Genesis 2.7) Below are a few other examples of the relationship between an individual's name and his function or role. And she bore קין (Qayin/Cain, Strong's #7014) and she said I have קנה (Qanah, Strong's #7069 - acquired) a man. (Genesis 4:1) And she bore a son and called his name שת (Sheyt/Seth, Strong's #8352) because God שית (Shiyt, Strong's #7896 - placed) a seed to replace Abel. (Genesis 4:25) And he called his name נוח (No’ahh/Noah, Strong's #5146) saying he will נחם (Nahham, Strong's #5162 - comfort) us. (Genesis 5:29) And to Eber were born two sons, the name of one is פלג (Peleg, Strong's #6389) because in his days the land was פלג (Palag, Strong's #6385- divided). (Genesis 10.25) Because Bible readers have no understanding of the transliterated names, they convert the meaning and essence of the name into simple “identifiers” and the connections between the name and his or her function or role is lost to them. If you have ever read John (not the guy with the blue ox) Bunion’s Pilgrim’s Progress you have a sense of how the Bible reads in regards to names of people and places. Everyone’s name was their function. i.e. Christian, Pilgrim, Worldly Wiseman, Obstinate, Evangelist, Slough of Despair, etc.
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Post by jimmie on Jan 26, 2016 15:35:59 GMT -8
Yes it is so that they were given the advantage of Gods Law yet they seek to circumvent it, at least with this law. Jesus definitely had a problem with the scribes and Pharisees. See Matt 23:23. Now a typical Christian will look at that verse and claim that Jesus was getting on to the scribes and Pharisees because they were being too meticulous with the law when tithing their mint and such. However Jesus affirms that they are correct in giving their tithes of the spices. Jesus’ problem with them stems from their omissions of the weightier matters of the law, judgement, mercy and faith. Just because God gave the Jews the advantage of His law it does not necessarily follow that they keep it perfectly. The Bible is full of stories of their failures. But then it is also filled with stories about their success. We should recognize and learn from both. A question regarding instruction verse law. If one does not follow the instruction of God, is not he punished? One definition of Law is: a body of principles or precepts held to express the divine will as revealed in the Bible. Also a law by its’ very nature carries an instruction. In regards to Matt 23:2-3, it is easy to see why the typical Christian focuses on the last part since the rest of the chapter is an all-out refruitation of the scribes and Pharisee’s actions that we must avoid so that our righteousness can exceed theirs. In regards to the obedience portion, my understanding is we should obey God rather than men. So Jesus’ instruction to “obey them” refers to “Moses’ seat” or God’s Word and not to the scribes and Pharisees. Now we are in other places told to “obey them that have the rule over us.” Since all authority comes from God, no one has the rule over me unless God gives it to them. Therefore I am under no obligation to obey a command from anyone when that conflicts with God’s commands.
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Post by jimmie on Jan 26, 2016 10:26:43 GMT -8
as long as the people saying it have a G-dly outlook on life. That hits the nail on the head.
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Post by jimmie on Jan 26, 2016 6:18:30 GMT -8
I agree with what you said in regards to Elohim/God. The same applies to L'chai'im/life.
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Post by jimmie on Jan 26, 2016 6:10:31 GMT -8
Three years it shall be forbidden to you; it must not be eaten. [/p] Dan C
[/quote] Our God said 3 Years not 2 years and one day. I guess I will be sticking with 3 years.
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Post by jimmie on Jan 25, 2016 15:42:52 GMT -8
Elohim = Gods???
Ahavat Elohim = For the love of Gods???
Now what is the imagery in your mind?
I am Pro-Life. Does that tell you that it is only my life that I am concerned with?
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Post by jimmie on Jan 25, 2016 15:33:45 GMT -8
[font color="111111In determining when these years begin and end, Tu B’Shvat became the cut-off date for calculating the age of fruit-bearing trees.Any tree planted in the previouse year has fulfilled the requirements for that year; a tree planted on the 14th of Shevat is calculated as being one year old on Tu B’Shevat. [/font][/quote] Looks as though this is a fulfilling of the letter of the law and not the spirit. A Tree planted on the 14th in not a year older than a tree planted on the 15th. This is the sort of things that Jesus was against.
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Niddah
Jan 14, 2016 11:19:06 GMT -8
Post by jimmie on Jan 14, 2016 11:19:06 GMT -8
If Christ didn't change the Law of God how can a temple?
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