Isaiah 42

[ersay]

Hello to everyone. Let me ask you a question. In Isaiah 42:4 the phrase "In his teaching the islands will put their hope" is mentioned. What does it mean?

[alon]

Nov 27, 2021 22:44:36 GMT -8 ersay said:

Hello to everyone. Let me ask you a question. In Isaiah 42:4 the phrase "In his teaching the islands will put their hope" is mentioned. What does it mean?

Sorry for the delay. I'm on all the time, and when I jump in and answer it gets to be me dominating the forum. So I wanted to give others a chance to reply. If they have knowledge of this then you and I both might learn. But here goes:

The word translated "islands" in your Bible in Hebrew is H339  אִי ‘ı̂y properly a habitable spot (as desirable); dry land, a coast, an island: - country, isle, island.

In most translations they chose the term "coastlands." And contextualy this speaks of ha'moshiach:

Isaiah 42:1-4 (ESV) Behold my servant, whom I uphold,
    my chosen, in whom my soul delights;
I have put my Spirit upon him;
    he will bring forth justice to the nations.
He will not cry aloud or lift up his voice,
    or make it heard in the street;
a bruised reed he will not break,
    and a faintly burning wick he will not quench;
    he will faithfully bring forth justice.
He will not grow faint or be discouraged
    till he has established justice in the earth;
    and the coastlands wait for his law.

"Coastlands" here  is a metaphor for far away places. Ancient  peoples, and especially the early (and later) Hebrews were very graphic, very visual, illustrative in their speech. And since boats, especially ships were the primary means of reaching distant lands, the term "coastlands" is used here to represent those lands.

The term "law" is from תֹּרָה tôrâh, which is more accurately translated "instruction." So this is saying the hope of the entire world lies in God's instruction as given to Moshe by Yeshua, who is HaMoshiach, also called "The Word" (John 1:1-3).

   

[ersay]

Sorry for the late reply and thank you for your reply. I'm trying to understand Isaiah 42.

"Let the wilderness and its towns raise their voices;
let the settlements where Kedar lives rejoice.
Let the people of Sela sing for joy;
let them shout from the mountaintops."

Do you know what is being conveyed here?

[alon]

Nov 30, 2021 9:42:46 GMT -8 ersay said:

Sorry for the late reply and thank you for your reply. I'm trying to understand Isaiah 42.

"Let the wilderness and its towns raise their voices;
let the settlements where Kedar lives rejoice.
Let the people of Sela sing for joy;
let them shout from the mountaintops."

Do you know what is being conveyed here?

Reading in context in the KJV, which my Strong’s is keyed to:

Isaiah 42:9-12 KJV

9 Behold, the former things are come to pass, and new things do I declare: before they spring forth I tell you of them.
So this is an end times prophesy.

10 Sing unto the Lord a new song, and his praise from the end of the earth, ye that go down to the sea, and all that is therein; the isles, and the inhabitants thereof.
therein- H4393 מְלֹא melô’ mel-o’- fulness (literally or figuratively) -all along, all that is (there-) in, fill, ( that whereof . . . was) full, fulness, [hand-] full, multitude.
isles- H339  אִי ‘ı̂y e’e- a habitable spot (as desirable); dry land, a coast, an island: - country, isle, island.
This speaks of all the coastlands, metaphorically all distant lands.

11 Let the wilderness and the cities thereof lift up their voice, the villages that Kedar doth inhabit: let the inhabitants of the rock sing, let them shout from the top of the mountains.
Kedar- קֵדָר qêdâr kedar- second son of Ishmael and his descendants; a Bedouin tribe.
rock- H5553 סֶלַע sela‛  seh’-lah- lofty; a craggy rock, literally or figuratively (a fortress): - (ragged) rock, stone (-ny), strong hold.
Basically in that day everyone everywhere will praise the God of all creation as their God!
Qedar is specifically mentioned, possibly to show Ishmael was not forgotten. Also Bedouins live among many Arabic peoples and the Jews, but are not assimilated by them. They are however loyal to the people or government where they are. So they may be seen as representative of all the dark skinned people of the Middle-east.

12 Let them give glory unto the Lord, and declare his praise in the islands.
islands- again, coastlands/distant lands.

Basically this passage is simply saying all men everywhere will acknowledge and praise the One True God as their God in the Olam Ha Ba, the world to come.

[ersay]

I have read Isaiah 42 from beginning to end. What I can understand is talking about what will happen when the Servant of the Lord comes. So I see a prophecy about the coming of Jesus, not from the last time. Am I wrong?

[alon]

Dec 1, 2021 21:55:28 GMT -8 ersay said:

I have read Isaiah 42 from beginning to end. What I can understand is talking about what will happen when the Servant of the Lord comes. So I see a prophecy about the coming of Jesus, not from the last time. Am I wrong?

Isaiah is an important book for believers in Yeshua, as there are clear prophecies about both his birth and His death. He also talked about and prophesied about things happening in his own tenure as a prophet, and he prophesied things in the end times.  The specific prophecy we were just talking about is from a time after His return. He pretty much covered the sweep of time form the last days of the two kingdoms on into the next life.

Another reason this book is so important is Yishayahu (his Hebrew name) was not afraid of his audience. He pulled no punches! His warnings were clear, and as relevant to us today as they were in his own time. A bit off-topic but I do like Isaiah!     

[ersay]

"The specific prophecy we were just talking about is from a time after His return"

I have read Isaiah 42. Here he speaks of the first coming of the servant of the Lord. It describes what will happen when the servant of the Lord first appears. I can't see the second coming. Here's what I understand, if Christian Theology is true, it's talking about the first coming of Jesus.

[alon]

Dec 2, 2021 2:52:09 GMT -8 ersay said:

"The specific prophecy we were just talking about is from a time after His return"

I have read Isaiah 42. Here he speaks of the first coming of the servant of the Lord. It describes what will happen when the servant of the Lord first appears. I can't see the second coming. Here's what I understand, if Christian Theology is true, it's talking about the first coming of Jesus.

Well, being Messianic I have no problem saying Christian theology is wrong when I think it is. And as I read this, I think they are in this case. I also tend to think Christians tend to think all important prophecy speaks to either their time, them specifically, or to their own theology. But in this case, I'd have to say it depends on which/what kind of Christians you  were  talking to/about. Probably as many would agree with my interpretation. 

I guess  what you must decide is if my interpretation is likely, and if so have all men everywhere acknowledged the God of Israel as their own? If not all I can say is that is my interpretation, which I believe to be true, and simple observation shows all men have not done this. So if I am right about the interpretation the only plausible answer is this is a  prophecy of a time after Yeshua's second coming.

Do you have a different interpretation that would support that this means our present time? 

[ersay]

First of all, sorry for my late reply. I think we should not add our own interpretation as much as possible when trying to understand a text. We have to look at what the text says. If we add our own interpretation, we may infer misunderstandings from the text. But thank you for your answer. I want to ask another question. In Isaiah 42:19 it is written that the Servant of the Lord was blind. It is said that he is ignorant. How can Jesus be ignorant if the Servant of the Lord is Jesus? Who is the blind here, can you help?

[alon]

Dec 4, 2021 19:46:44 GMT -8 ersay said:

First of all, sorry for my late reply. I think we should not add our own interpretation as much as possible when trying to understand a text. We have to look at what the text says. If we add our own interpretation, we may infer misunderstandings from the text. But thank you for your answer. I want to ask another question. In Isaiah 42:19 it is written that the Servant of the Lord was blind. It is said that he is ignorant. How can Jesus be ignorant if the Servant of the Lord is Jesus? Who is the blind here, can you help?

I'd agree, at least as much as possible. That's why I went to my reference books and considered all the nuances of the terms. Then applied what I have learned about ancient Hebrew thinking to the text. Perfect? Can't be. But you got my best effort as well as an invitation to supply a alternative because, well, I can't be "perfect." I've said many times here whatever I put up can, and if anyone has reason or other information should be challenged. That said, we all do bring certain biases to anything we do. The only way we can overcome these is through discussion.

Ignorance just means one is unaware of something. As part of His human condition, I imagine even Yeshua was ignorant of some things. If, indeed this speaks of ha'moshiach:

Isaiah 42:1 English Standard Version
Behold my servant, whom I uphold,
my chosen, in whom my soul delights;
I have put my Spirit upon him;
he will bring forth justice to the nations.

 According to the notes in my study TNK, there are several possibilities:
- Cyrus (Saadia Gaon)
- Yeshayahu (Ibn Ezra)
- Mashiach (Targum & Radak)
- Israelite Nation (LXX & Rashi) 

My thought is that prophecy can speak of more than one thing, so all or any combination of these is possible. For example, I think (and this is just my interpretation) it clearly points to Yeshua  HaMoshiach. However the text also says:

Isaiah 42:6 English Standard Version
“I am the Lord; I have called you in righteousness;
I will take you by the hand and keep you;
I will give you as a covenant for the people,
*  The Hebrew for you is singular; four times in this verse

However they have a different interpretation:
"I created you, and appointed you
A light to the nations."

That interpretation could infer the Hebrew nation, since they were literally created by God; and for the stated purpose. However my Stone's Heb/Eng and my Green's Interlinear are more with the ESV in their interpretations. So Id say while others may be possible, the Moshiach is a definite. But as the passage goes on the prophet speaks more to the Hebrew people:

Isaiah 42:16-18,22 English Standard Version
And I will lead the blind
in a way that they do not know,
in paths that they have not known
I will guide them.
I will turn the darkness before them into light,
the rough places into level ground.
These are the things I do,
and I do not forsake them.
They are turned back and utterly put to shame,
who trust in carved idols,
who say to metal images,
“You are our gods.”
Hear, you deaf,
and look, you blind, that you may see!
... But this is a people plundered and looted;
they are all of them trapped in holes
and hidden in prisons;
they have become plunder with none to rescue,
spoil with none to say, “Restore!”

So here we could be speaking of the nation. Certainly ha'moshiach would never worship an idol! This being the case the part about the servant being blind may not apply to ha'moshiach in vs. 19. I personally doubt it does. But again, this is just my own imperfect interpretation.