Rom. 10 : 04 - 08 Messiah is the end of the Law?

[R' Y'hoshua Moshe]

Please share your interpretation of Romans 10:4-8...

"For Messiah is the end of the law for righteousness to every one that believeth.'

Shalom,

Reuel

[steve_613++]

Shalom Reuel.

This one is no problem. In English the word "end" can have several meanings. "End point," "cessation in time or space," "the last member of a series or sequence," and so on. It can also mean "purpose," "aim," or "goal" as in "a means to an end." The two Greek words used to express these ideas are eschatos and telos.

Now eschatos is used almost without exception to express the idea of "final one," "last member" as in, "The last (eschatoi) shall be first."

telos, on the other hand, whilst used to express a similar idea, is more subtle and can also express the idea of "aim, purpose, design goal." When telos is translated "end" the subject under discussion, rather than being some sort of ending or the termination of something, is usually THE end. That is the say, the ultimate consummation, the point and purpose of all things, hence:

• I am Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the end (telos), the first and the last (eschatos).---Rev. 22:13
  
  
• But the end (telos) of all things is at hand:---1 Peter 4:7
  

But for the other meaning, look at the use of telos in the following:

• Receiving the end (telos) of your faith, even the salvation of your souls.---1 Peter 1:9
  The salvation of our souls is not the point at which our faith ceases to exist; it is the very purpose of our faith!
  
  
• Behold, we count them happy which endure. Ye have heard of the patience of Job, and have seen the end (telos) of the Lord; that the Lord is very pitiful, and of tender mercy.---James 5:11
  Are we to suppose that the Lord has ceased to exist? Of course not. So why do antinomians suppose that has ceased to exist because it is written "Messiah is the end (telos) of the Law ..."
  (telos)
  
• Now the end (telos) of the commandment is charity out of a pure heart, and of a good conscience, and of faith unfeigned:---1 Timothy 1:5
  The purpose of the commandment is charity.
  

Is this helping? There are lots of examples of these two Greek words in Scripture. Careful observation of their use will show the honest enquirer that Messiah is the purpose, aim, goal of . Not its termination.

Shalom to you all.

By the way "teleology" is defined variously as

• "in philosophy, the science or doctrine that attempts to explain the universe in terms of ends or final causes."
  
• "in philosophy, term applied to any system attempting to explain a series of events in terms of ends, goals, or purposes."
  

Steve.

[R' Y'hoshua Moshe]

Steve,

Well put. Very good

I believe you have given the correct interpretation.

Shalom achi,

Reuel

[The 614th Mitzvot]

As I have said already on another post, Yohshuah HaMoshiach was the end of the Law for righteousness. He is necessary to be a tzadik. One cannot be righteous without Him; if it weren't, we could have tzadiks who go to Heaven, but don't believe.

We are now above the Law. Meaning we are literally, no longer under it. We can practice and be perfect, be a tzadik, because we do not have to work perfectly, but rather we have Yohshuah HaMoshiach to forgive us.

[alon]

Sept 12, 2004 11:22:53 GMT -8 The 614th Mitzvot said:

As I have said already on another post, Yohshuah HaMoshiach was the end of the Law for righteousness. He is necessary to be a tzadik. One cannot be righteous without Him; if it weren't, we could have tzadiks who go to Heaven, but don't believe.

We are now above the Law. Meaning we are literally, no longer under it. We can practice and be perfect, be a tzadik, because we do not have to work perfectly, but rather we have Yohshuah HaMoshiach to forgive us.

614 seems to have done a dispensationalist flip here. I'm not sure he meant it this way, but it sounds pretty antinomian. I agree that "Yohshuah HaMoshiach was the end of the Law for righteousness." And He (or His Ruach) is necessary in order for us to be tzadikim. However since "tzadik" means "righteous one," how can we have an unrighteous tzadik? And one who does not "believe" (let alone trust) in Elohim is not tzadik. Neither are those who do not obey.

And "We are now above the Law?" No we aren't! True, we are not under it (or at least I hope nobody here is) because that would mean we are unsaved. But to be above the law would mean it doesn't apply to us. That is antinomianism. And since Yeshua is God, we (and those Old Testament Jews) always had Him to forgive us. Melech Dovid is my go-to example. When confronted with the most egregious sins by the prophet Nathan, he fell on his face and repented and was subsequently forgiven. Nathaniel couldn't forgive sins, so it must have been Hashem; the same Hashem Who called Melech Dovid a man after His own heart. So where in the "N-e-e-e-e-w" Testament does it say Yeshua forgave someone's sin by saying there is no longer a law, so whatever you do is not sin? Or that the law is whatever you believe it to be in your own heart? By that definition, Hitler never sinned! No, Yeshua as God and as The Word gave the standard to which we are to aspire to Moshe at Sinai, and He has always forgiven us if we repent and trust in Him. And that is as true in this "N-e-e-e-e-w" day as it was in times of "Old."

Dan C

[jimmie]

"End" is one of those words that have more than one meaning. One of those meanings is goal

For Messiah is the goal of the law for righteousness to every one that believeth.

[librarylarry]

  Shalom, I have posted Andrew Gabriel Roth's input on this topic at redacted

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