Ephesians 2:15

[Mark]

Has the Law been abolished?

Having abolished in his flesh the enmity, even the law of commandments contained in ordinances; for to make in himself of twain one new man, so making peace; And that he might reconcile both unto God in one body by the cross, having slain the enmity thereby: And came and preached peace to you which were afar off, and to them that were nigh.
(Ephesians 2:15-17)

[inthewind]

I would be very interested to get some clarity on this.

My understanding is that the enmity that was abolished is that between Jews and Gentiles, and that Gentiles who are now joined to the commonwealth of Israel are also part of God's people.

Shalom.

[Mark]

In order to answer this we have to back up just a little and ask, "What are the 'good works' that Paul is referring to in Epheisians 2:10?" As Messianic we understand "good works" to be the positive mizvot found in ? As Christians we define it, well, however we feel like defining it according to our culture and economic circumstances.

In verses 11-14, Paul talks about gentiles no longer being considered gentiles but now having free access into what they were once not allowed to participate in. Christian teaching sometimes suggests that the "middle wall of partition" is referring to the curtain that stands between the Holy Place and the Holy of Holies. They tie this to Hebrews 4:16 where we are encouraged to come boldly to the "Throne of Grace" drawing a mental image of the Holy of Holies. This doesn't hold contextually because Paul is distinguishing between Jew and gentile. If he were talking about the curtain found in the Temple, the distinction would be between the High Priest and everyone else (Jew and gentile alike).

Yet, there was a "middle wall of partition" in Herod's Temple (not in Solomon's, not in the Tabernacle) which distinguished between Jew and gentile. Gentiles were allowed to worship the God of Israel in the court of the gentiles; but to pass into the court of the Jews was punishable by death (See Acts 21:27-31).

Here's the important thing: the separation of gentiles and disallowing of gentiles into Jewish worship is not found in . In fact, quite the opposite. The stranger who alaigns himself with Israel is to be treated as one who was born among them (Leviticus 19:34).

The Greek word found in the King James Bible as translated "ordinances" is the word "dogma". Dogma is nowhere found in the New Testament as a reference for . It is consistently in the context of ordinances of human origin. In Acts 16:4 and 17:7 it is translated "decrees". It is confusing to us because we want to consider all laws spoken of as . It's not the case. When Peter said in Acts 10:28 that it was unlawful thing for a Jew to keep company with a gentile, he wasn't speaking of - rather of the dogma taught in the nationalistic Judaism of the day.

Ordinances (again, King James) do sometimes refer to (or at least Jewish Law). Paul uses the word "paradosis" whick James Strong translates as "Jewish traditionary Law" which Paul encourages the Corinthian Church to keep (he uses the same word in 2nd Thessalonians 2:15 but it is translated "traditions"). In Luke 1:6 it is the word "dikayoomah" is translated "ordinances", refering to the equitable deeds performed by the parents of John the Baptizer.

Paul was consistent in his use of terminology; but we find that English translators often are not, and we must be careful before we draw conclusions that that make the author appear contradictory.

[inthewind]

thank you. It is sometimes hard to see in the dark.