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Post by Mark on Jan 29, 2008 5:07:12 GMT -8
so, lots of passages bug me; but few more than this:
And he cometh to Bethsaida: and they bring a blind man unto him, and besought him to touch him. And he took the blind man by the hand, and led him out of the town; and when he had spit on his eyes, and put his hands upon him, he asked him if he saw aught. And he looked up, and said, I see men as trees, walking. After that he put his hands again upon his eyes, and made him look up: and he was restored, and saw every man clearly.
(Mar 8:22-25 KJV)
Why did it take Messiah two tries to heal this man?
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Post by Golfnerd on Feb 2, 2008 10:11:37 GMT -8
so, lots of passages bug me; but few more than this: And he cometh to Bethsaida: and they bring a blind man unto him, and besought him to touch him. And he took the blind man by the hand, and led him out of the town; and when he had spit on his eyes, and put his hands upon him, he asked him if he saw aught. And he looked up, and said, I see men as trees, walking. After that he put his hands again upon his eyes, and made him look up: and he was restored, and saw every man clearly. (Mar 8:22-25 KJV) Why did it take Messiah two tries to heal this man? I think there is something more to this story than meets the eye - harhar - sorry  Why does Yeshua ask the man WHAT he sees? Since we know that there is no idle word in Scripture, He put it there for a reason. How many times in the rest of Scripture does "tree" show up? What's the significance? |
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Post by Nashdude on May 30, 2008 6:20:55 GMT -8
I think there is something more to this story than meets the eye - harhar - sorry Why does Yeshua ask the man WHAT he sees? Since we know that there is no idle word in Scripture, He put it there for a reason. How many times in the rest of Scripture does "tree" show up? What's the significance? Actually, unless I'm reading this wrong, Jesus never asks the man WHAT he sees. Rather, He asks him if he sees ANYTHING. The word for "ought" is the Greek words ei tis, which asks an "if" question regarding "whoever or whatever". For reference, they are used in the following verses (translated words boldened)... Mark 4:23 -- If any man have ears to hear, let him hear. Mark 9:22 -- And ofttimes it hath cast him into the fire, and into the waters, to destroy him: but if thou canst do any thing, have compassion on us, and help us. Luke 19:8 -- And Zacchaeus stood, and said unto the Lord; Behold, Lord, the half of my goods I give to the poor; and if I have taken any thing from any man by false accusation, I restore him fourfold. Hope this helps with that part. Now, as to the original question... Actually, I don't think that it did take Jesus two tries to heal the man! I think the answer is much more simple than that. Look here... Mark 8:25 -- After that he put his hands again upon his eyes, and made him look up: and he was restored, and saw every man clearly. Remember, Jesus spat in the man's eyes! Now, I doubt the spit did anything to the man's eyes except serve as a point of contact for his faith. People of that day were very carnal. They saw the world in physical terms. It's quite possible that this man would not have just opened his eyes if Jesus said, "Okay, you can see now". His faith may not have been prepared for something like that. Either way, the man had spit in his eyes. Following Jesus' laying on of hands, he DID see, though not clearly. Again, he had spit in his eyes, and he was probably so excited to be able to see that he forgot all about the spit! I think Jesus touched his eyes again for no other reason than to wipe his eyes clean. No second tries or anything so unnerving as that. Just common courtesy  |
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