Post by Wavy_Wonder on Dec 15, 2005 17:42:54 GMT -8
admin said:
Shalom achi,Because the discusson is with you and not another person whom identifies themself as "Two House" (as views can vary), perhaps I should first get an understanding of how you personally believe. What are the tenants of what you believe indentifies you as "Two House". Please describe what you believe sets you apart as a "Two House" believer in general.
Shalom b'Yeshua,
Reuel
Well, of course we have the numerous prophecies concerning the restoration of both houses by YHWH (through Messiah) in the scriptures.
Now from the viewpoint of some, the two-houses were reunited after the return to Babylon. If this is so, Messiah's first advent was random and meaningless.
This can't be true, however. Ezekiel 37 explicitly, in addition to other passages, refutes the claim that the two-houses were reunited long ago.
Secondly, if the view that he will deal with this sometime in the future is held, this also means his coming was random and meaningless because the whole purpose of his coming was to rebuild and restore Israel.
Thankfully, Messiah clears this up himself in Matthew 15:24. In Matthew 4 we find an example of his first mission being just that:
Matthew 4:13 And leaving Nazareth, he came and dwelt in Capernaum, which is upon the sea coast, in the borders of Zevulon and Naphthali:
Matthew 4:14 That it might be fulfilled which was spoken by Isaiah the prophet, saying,
Matthew 4:15 The land of Zevulon, and the land of Naphthali, by the way of the sea, beyond Jordan, Galilee of the Gentiles;
Matthew 4:16 The people which sat in darkness saw great light; and to them which sat in the region and shadow of death light is sprung up.
Here areas of Ephraim Israel were referred to as Galilee of the Gentiles. This is very key. In context, according to Isaiah 9 (specifically quoting verse 2), this is clearly a reference to those Israelites who were living in the darkness of their exile.
Also in this chapter, he choses disciples and names them "fishers of men". Just being poetic? Or is he directly alluding to scripture? Jeremiah 16:14-16 will provide our answer and what exactly Messiah meant when he said this. He also declares the reversal of the curses of Ephraim Israel found in Hosea 1 in Matthew 5.
He also alludes to Ezekiel 34 in John 10, refering to himself as that Shepherd sent by YHWH (and who is YHWH) to restore Israel out in the nations and make them one fold with Judah.
So why didn't he complete this then? Let's check the scripture:
Matthew 23:37 O Jerusalem, Jerusalem, thou that killest the prophets, and stonest them which are sent unto thee, how often would I have gathered thy children together, even as a hen gathereth her chickens under her wings, and ye would not!
Matthew 23:38 Behold, your house is left unto you desolate.
Because of unbelief and outright rebellion, I believe the ultimate healing and restoration was put on hold, and he became the Righteous Servant in Isaiah 53.
Also, because Israel was divided against itself was the complete restoration put on hold. After mentioning that a house cannot be divided against itself in Matthew 12, he states (words of YHWH always in black italic):
Matthew 12:30 He that is not with me is against me; and he that gathereth not with me scattereth abroad.
Those who know Messiah's true mission understand this and would do what's possible to learn and work to do this ministry, if it pleased YHWH to ordain him to do so.
Those against Yeshua are those sheperds in Ezekiel 34 that did not seek to help their brothers out in the nations. So YHWH had to do it himself (see Ezekiel 34:11 and the following verses).
Now, did he stop the work of the mission? No he did not. He continued it through his shlichim/apostles. He makes this clear in Acts 1:6-8, when the disciples asked him would he finally restore the kingdom to Israel (not build the "church" as Christianity teaches). He outlines the mission: Jerusalem, Judaea, Samaria, and to the furthest parts of the earth (where the exiles are).
The gospel to all nations is, in context, if we take the sum of the word (Psalm 119:160) into account, is all nations where the lost of Israel are found (including much of Judah). The fulfillment of the promise of Jeremiah 31:31 is fulfilled in Acts 2 with both houses present at the Temple (the ones from the nations were largely Ephraim). They shared things from "house to house" according to Acts 2:46, which is a hint of what all this was about.
Messiah said a house divided against itself will not stand (the house of Jacob as a whole as one nation). Judah cannot vex Ephraim Israel and vice versa.
This was part of Paul's calling to help in restoring Israel. He describes this in Ephesians 2 with making one new man from Jew + Gentile. Those who were "far off" in Ephesians 2:13 are the exiles of Israel. This term "far off" is significant and is found in scriptures such as Daniel 9:7, Isaiah 33:13, Isaiah 57:19, Ezekiel 11:16, Micah 4:7 and others in reference to the lost of Israel, scattered out in the nations.
Paul calls this a great mystery concerning the gentiles in Ephesians 3 and Ephesians 5, and also mentions this in Romans 11:25.
The answer is found in the "fullness of the gentiles". This is directly taken from Genesis 48:19 where Ephraim, Jospeh's Son, was promised to become a "fullness of the nations" by Jacob. The KJV, for example, has "multitude of nations". But please, look up the word for yourself.
This is also found in several places in Genesis concerning Abraham, Isaac and Jacob's seed and the promises and declarations that go with them.
Because of Messiah's true mission, the good news of the deliverance from captivity (as per Luke 4:18-20 where Messiah quotes Isaiah 61) can also reach out to those who are not biological Israelites and they also join as friends/companions such as in Ezekiel 37:16.
The Olive Tree of Israel as found in Romans 11 (though it is mentioned in the scriptures long before this was written) is a study that would prolong this post longer than it already is, even if it was shortened. So I'll leave you with this (if anybody reads).
I mean, there is overwhelming evidence for this stuff in the NT alone apart from the Tanach (but of course, to understand it you need to be familiar with the Tanach or at least have it taught to you as it was taught and is still being taught to me).
Peace/love.