Post by Mark on May 17, 2009 6:19:14 GMT -8
To understand the question, we must first acknowledge that "Redemption" is a specific concept in Scripture that denotes a prior relationship. To redeem means to buy back that which one must first have legal right to have. It is different than going to the marketplace and buying apples. It requires there first being a relationship with affords the Redeemer legal right of ownership.
The covenant promises by which Messiah established Himself as the Redeemer are not extended universally. The Covenant People is the House of Judah and Ephraim (Israel). This position is established by His own words in Matthew 15:24, "I am not sent but unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel. "
Does this mean that gentiles cannot be saved? Such a conclusion would make Yeshua's commission to his disciples in Matthew 28:18-20 a serious waste of time. Yet, nowhere is it suggested that the gentiles abandon their relationship with the covenant people Israel and walk distinctive from her; rather Paul encourages boldness to the gentile in entering in as part of her "commonwealth" (Ephesians 2).
What is troubling is the notion that the gentile Church has legitimacy in their faith toward a Jewish Messiah without regard or connection to the Jewish people: that there are two bodies, two spirits, two baptisms, two inheritances of the kingdom separate but equal in how they may function and relate to Him.
Does the gentile believer enter into a Jewish faith when begins to walk after the ways of Messiah? Is He redeemed in that he joins himself to the covenant people? Or is his faith an individual response to a theological message completely isolated from the Covenant promises established with the Jewish people?
The covenant promises by which Messiah established Himself as the Redeemer are not extended universally. The Covenant People is the House of Judah and Ephraim (Israel). This position is established by His own words in Matthew 15:24, "I am not sent but unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel. "
Does this mean that gentiles cannot be saved? Such a conclusion would make Yeshua's commission to his disciples in Matthew 28:18-20 a serious waste of time. Yet, nowhere is it suggested that the gentiles abandon their relationship with the covenant people Israel and walk distinctive from her; rather Paul encourages boldness to the gentile in entering in as part of her "commonwealth" (Ephesians 2).
What is troubling is the notion that the gentile Church has legitimacy in their faith toward a Jewish Messiah without regard or connection to the Jewish people: that there are two bodies, two spirits, two baptisms, two inheritances of the kingdom separate but equal in how they may function and relate to Him.
Does the gentile believer enter into a Jewish faith when begins to walk after the ways of Messiah? Is He redeemed in that he joins himself to the covenant people? Or is his faith an individual response to a theological message completely isolated from the Covenant promises established with the Jewish people?