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Post by alon on Oct 11, 2019 23:34:18 GMT -8
For (Question 2) (Did (A) Elijah's chariot deliver ELijah to heaven for ages, or did (B) the chariot just transport him via heaven to another location and that Elijah show up as still alive on earth within his normal lifespan in a later passage?), one of the main arguments that Elijah didn't go up for ages in heaven is that later in the Bible, it says that a writing came from Elijah to the king of Judah. But even here there is ambiguity, because Elijah himself didn't arrive, and one could ask why he didn't: A) because he wrote the letter in expectation of what would happen with the king and then left for heaven, B) the letter did come from Elijah in heaven like being brought from a whirlwind, or C) Elijah was somewhere else on earth like in a cave and it was easier to send a letter. Typically it seems like the Old Testament prophets gave their prophecies in person, and the wording sounds mysterious in this verse, when it says that there came a letter, instead of eg. "Elijah sent a letter." In his commentary on the verse in 2 Chron. 21, "Толкование на Вторую книгу Паралипоменон", Lopuhin writes that the verse about the letter to King Joram created difficulty because the usual opinion was that Elijah ascended earlier, under King Jehosaphat, although Lopuhin says that the assumption that he ascended under King Jehosaphat is not certain in the Biblical text. He says that different rabbinical ways to explain the letter were that an angel brought the letter from heaven or that Elijah wrote it before his ascension. He comments that the year of Elijah's ascension is unknown and could gave occurred under King Joram. In his commentary on 4 Kings 1:17, Lopuhin says that Joram and his father Jehosaphat may have ruled jointly at the beginning of Joram's reign. In his commentary on 2 Chron. 21, Lopuhin says it's not odd that Elijah didn't appear himself to speak to King Joram, because Elijah lived in the northern kingdom of Israel, not in Judah. First, the fact that Elijah left his cloak for Elisha suggests to me that he remained in heaven, because he would need it if he returned to earth. It seems he left it as a memento. Second, in 2 Kings 2:12, the claim that Elisha saw Elijah "no more" tends to suggest to me that Elisha never saw Elijah again because the same term is used of Enoch's disappearance. Third, 2 Kings 2:3 makes it sound like Elisha was losing Elijah as his teacher: "...the sons of the prophets that were at Bethel came forth to Elisha, and said unto him, Knowest thou that the Lord will take away thy master from thy head to day?" If Elijah was just transported across the sky, his Elijah's absence wouldn't be such a big deal. Fourth, although he was writing centuries later, Josephus confirmed the interpretation that Elijah remained in heaven. Fifth, before Elijah was taken up, he smote the Jordan and crossed it on dry land with Elisha, which brings to mind crossing the earthly plane through death, perhaps without dying. That Elijah and later Elisha smote the water with the clothes to make it divide also suggests the concept of Elijah's body being able to conquer death, since clothes can represent skin like in the story of the Garden of Eden. Remember that Elijah resurrected a boy. Sixth, Elisha's rending his own clothes when Elijah was taken up suggests his loss of Elijah because Israelites rent their clothes under major distress. Seventh, Elijah granting Elisha's request to have a double portion of Elijah's spirit sounds like granting an inheritance, not just a gift for a temporary earthly separation. Eighth, the 50 sons of prophets couldn't find Elijah, even though they searched three days. BTW, I think the three days' searching alludes to the concept of the third day bodily resurrection. I think I answered this one enough. Elijah was taken up to the heavens. Only he and Enoch were ever given this privilage to be taken up without suffering death. Because of this, it is speculated they will be the two witnesses in Revelation. But since the Bible doesn't say he was "transported" somewhere else, but that he was taken up, then up I believe!
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Post by alon on Oct 12, 2019 8:59:05 GMT -8
I wonder where it says, like you mentioned, that Persians allowed the Northern Kingdom's exiles dispersed by the Assyrians 3 or 4 centuries earlier to return. Ezra 1:1-4 (ESV) In the first year of Cyrus king of Persia, that the word of the Lord by the mouth of Jeremiah might be fulfilled, the Lord stirred up the spirit of Cyrus king of Persia, so that he made a proclamation throughout all his kingdom and also put it in writing:
“Thus says Cyrus king of Persia: The Lord, the God of heaven, has given me all the kingdoms of the earth, and he has charged me to build him a house at Jerusalem, which is in Judah. Whoever is among you of all his people, may his God be with him, and let him go up to Jerusalem, which is in Judah, and rebuild the house of the Lord, the God of Israel—he is the God who is in Jerusalem. And let each survivor, in whatever place he sojourns, be assisted by the men of his place with silver and gold, with goods and with beasts, besides freewill offerings for the house of God that is in Jerusalem.” This information confirms what you said about them being a mix.
I was just repeating what God said in His Word, so I was pretty sure of myself!
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Post by alon on Oct 12, 2019 9:17:11 GMT -8
Regarding Question 4(Could the Assyrian king's warning to King Hezekiah cryptically allude to the Crucifixion?), this question is based on Isaiah 36:6. Alexander Cruden theorizes that a broken red signals one's weakness or inability, a bruised reed signals one crushed and contrite, based on Isaiah 43, and a reed shaken by the wind signals someone of no settled purpose, being used as a metaphorical antonym of John the Baptist in Matthew 11. Isaiah 42:3 says about God's servant: "A bruised reed shall he not break, and the smoking flax shall he not quench: he shall bring forth judgment unto truth." Ezekiel 29:6-7 describes Egypt as a reed that broke when Israel leaned on it, maybe referring to Hezekiah leaning on Egypt; "6. And all the inhabitants of Egypt shall know that I am the Lord, because they have been a staff of reed to the house of Israel. 7. When they took hold of thee by thy hand, thou didst break, and rend all their shoulder: and when they leaned upon thee, thou brakest, and madest all their loins to be at a stand." I have trouble finding theories that Hezekiah, whose third day recovery prefigured the Resurrection, also had a prefigurement of the crucifixion in the image of him piercing his hand on the broken reed. Matthew Henry's commentary on Matthew 27:29, about the soldiers putting a reed in Yeshua's hand to mock Him at the Passion, says: The broken reed, metaphorically used as a staff to lean on for support, then broke and, since metaphorical Judah was leaning on it "his" hand slipped quickly down and was pierced by the broken end. This is a picture of those who depend on Egypt for support. Their support breaks off and you are left to face the enemy alone, a picture of your hand being injured. You now must fight as a cripple, a warrior with a serious injury with which to contend. I really see no metaphor for the Cross in that.
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Post by rakovsky on Oct 12, 2019 10:10:44 GMT -8
I wonder where it says, like you mentioned, that Persians allowed the Northern Kingdom's exiles dispersed by the Assyrians 3 or 4 centuries earlier to return. Ezra 1:1-4 (ESV) In the first year of Cyrus king of Persia, that the word of the Lord by the mouth of Jeremiah might be fulfilled, the Lord stirred up the spirit of Cyrus king of Persia, so that he made a proclamation throughout all his kingdom and also put it in writing:
“Thus says Cyrus king of Persia: The Lord, the God of heaven, has given me all the kingdoms of the earth, and he has charged me to build him a house at Jerusalem, which is in Judah. Whoever is among you of all his people, may his God be with him, and let him go up to Jerusalem, which is in Judah, and rebuild the house of the Lord, the God of Israel—he is the God who is in Jerusalem. And let each survivor, in whatever place he sojourns, be assisted by the men of his place with silver and gold, with goods and with beasts, besides freewill offerings for the house of God that is in Jerusalem.” This information confirms what you said about them being a mix.
I was just repeating what God said in His Word, so I was pretty sure of myself! Well, regarding the Persians' allowance of the refugees to return, it didn't specify that there were exiles from the 10 tribes dispersed 3 to 4 centuries earlier returning. Over 300 years, conceivably some of them might not have returned because they lost their identity like the potential Israelites of northern India. Or let's say they retained their identity, they might still not choose to return, similar to how in other periods some Jews haven't returned even when feasible. The Babylonian Jewish community remained large even after this decree, for example. Plus, due to conflict between the North and Judah, they might not have identified with the Jews - for whom the decree was fundamentally aimed - enough to return. So it's not clear if this decree meant that the northern exiles actually returned to Samaria, unfortunately.
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Post by rakovsky on Oct 12, 2019 13:00:57 GMT -8
Regarding Question 4(Could the Assyrian king's warning to King Hezekiah cryptically allude to the Crucifixion?), this question is based on Isaiah 36:6. The broken reed, metaphorically used as a staff to lean on for support, then broke and, since metaphorical Judah was leaning on it "his" hand slipped quickly down and was pierced by the broken end. This is a picture of those who depend on Egypt for support. Their support breaks off and you are left to face the enemy alone, a picture of your hand being injured. You now must fight as a cripple, a warrior with a serious injury with which to contend. I really see no metaphor for the Cross in that. - My idea was that Hezekiah's experience resembled Yeshua's.
His three day healing was a prefigurement of Yeshua's third day resurrection. So along with this, the image of Hezekiah's suffering with the piercing of his hand by a reed on which his weight rested could also relate to Yeshua's piercing passion, particularly the piercing of his hand by the nail on which his weight rested on the cross. Just as Isaiah's Book had a cryptic allusion to the resurrection, it could also have an allusion to the crucifixion. - Whereas the reed was broken in the metaphor, the cross is a set of broken boards and pieces of iron.
- Although Ezekiel said that Egypt was like a broken reed that Judah relied on and was pierced by so that it ruined Judah's shoulder, Hezekiah ultimately was victorious against Assyria, just as Yeshua was in His own mission.
- Just as ultimately Hezekiah was saved by God's power, so was Yeshua saved by God's power.
One obstacle with this analogy between Hezekiah and the reed and Yeshua and the Cross is that in Isaiah 36:6, it says that the reed will go "ḇə-ḵap-pōw", into the kaph or palm of the hand, whereas Yeshua's nails probably went into his forearms. You could reply that the connection between Hezekiah and Yeshua is very weak regarding the reed and the cross, but then someone else could claim that the connection about the third day resurrection is also weak. Or consider the connection between the serpeant on the staff in Moses' story and Yeshua on the cross. The connection could be seen as weak, yet Yeshua drew a connection that may have been in the story itself, ie. the story of Moses' staff may have actually alluded to the Cross.
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Post by rakovsky on Nov 27, 2019 5:23:07 GMT -8
For Question 5, the king in question whose priest discovered the Books of the Law was Josiah, not Hezekiah. Josephus narrated the passage praising Josiah that I quoted in Book X, Chapter IV, sections 1-2, and he was referring to Josiah's accession to the throne and Hilkiah's discovery of Moses' Laws in 2 Kings 22 and 2 Chronicles 34. The priest who is named Eliakas in Greek is named Hilkiah in Hebrew.
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Post by alon on Nov 27, 2019 7:49:32 GMT -8
For Question 5, the king in question whose priest discovered the Books of the Law was Josiah, not Hezekiah. Josephus narrated the passage praising Josiah that I quoted in Book X, Chapter IV, sections 1-2, and he was referring to Josiah's accession to the throne and Hilkiah's discovery of Moses' Laws in 2 Kings 22 and 2 Chronicles 34. The priest who is named Eliakas in Greek is named Hilkiah in Hebrew. Makes a little more sense. I'd say when confronted by the enormity of the transgression of the kingdom his reaction is understandable. At the time true godly men mourned for their nation. And they had a fear of God and His wrath we have lost today, but may yet soon come to regret. Whereas Kings of Israel were supposed to themselves write 2 copies of , it and its precepts had been ignored and violated. But this is what does, it instructs us on what is sin and what is godly living, and it convicts us of that sin before a holy God. So the kings reaction is not just understandable, but is exactly what we should expect from a truly repentant man of this time.
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Post by rakovsky on Nov 27, 2019 17:14:27 GMT -8
Also for Question 5, Ellicott's Commentary notes that 2 Kings 22 literally says, "the book of the have I found." This implies that the priest found a particular book. Ellicott theorizes that this was the same thing as the Testimony, which I thought was the Ten Commandments, but Ellicott apparently theorizes that this was a longer summary of the Laws: Really what I am asking is how could the pious law abiding king Josiah have been surprised apparently when the discovered Law was unread. Like had he not really known what the Law had said, or was this a newly created set of new rules. It seems a strange conflictual issue. Maybe when Josephus described Josiah as law abiding and pious, he meant that the king was law abiding to the extent that the king knew the Law. Maclaren's Exposition theorizes: Benson's Commentary theorizes: Barnes' Notes argues that the discovered books were not forgeries because eg. the Samaritans had the independently preserved: Jamiesson-Faucet's commentary theorizes: The hypothesis that the book discovered was a summary of reminds me of the theory that the book was Deuteronomy, because I read that Deuteronomy summarizes the laws of the preceding books. In Deuteronomy 31, Moses writes God's commands in a book, and God instructs: “Take this Book of the Law, and put it beside the ark of the covenant of the LORD your God, that it may be there as a witness against you;" It sounds like this was the book that Hilkiah found. The Cambridge Bible for Schools and Colleges says: The Pulpit Commentary agrees with Josephus' reading that the discovered book was the : Keilar and Delitzsch's commentary says about Josiah: "Affable Geek" writes on Christianity Stackexchange: Also on Christianity Stackexchange, thingy Harfield theorizes that the discovered book was a forgery: The Haaretz article "Who Wrote the ?" comments:"Shaphan claimed that the book had been found in the Temple while the priests were cleaning up the storeroom."
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Post by rakovsky on Nov 27, 2019 19:56:24 GMT -8
Also for Question 5 about why Josiah was surprised if he was pious, I think the answer is that in the Bible it says he was pious, but it doesn't specify that he knew what the said before the Book of the Law was discovered. When Josephus wrote about Josiah being law abiding, he was just summarizing Josiah's life, not specifically talking about the time when he was a youth before the book was found. Verse 13 specifies that Josiah was distraught because the Lord would act wrathfully because of his and the people's predecessors' sins. Then the prophetess Huldah predicted that Josiah himself would not see the desolation imposed on the nation, since he was humble and wept because of the wrongdoing. 2 Kings 22 says: In this text, the Book was later discovered when David arranged for the Temple to be repaired:
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Post by alon on Nov 28, 2019 8:41:27 GMT -8
Also for Question 5, Ellicott's Commentary notes that 2 Kings 22 literally says, "the book of the have I found." This implies that the priest found a particular book. "Books" then, as you know, were scrolls, and all of could be placed on one scroll: סֵפֶר çêpher, say'-fer; or (feminine) סִפְרָה çiphrâh; (Psalm 56:8 (H9)), from H5608; properly, writing (the art or a document); by implication, a book:—bill, book, evidence, × learn(-ed) (-ing), letter, register, scroll.The idea of books is western, and can refer to as a book, or any one of the 5 books which makes it up. So we must be careful of placing our own ideas on what is said (a thing the church- all of them- is very bad about), and further about transposition of terms within our own system. Cepher in Judaism is a scroll. That's probably what was found. Ellicott theorizes that this was the same thing as the Testimony, which I thought was the Ten Commandments, but Ellicott apparently theorizes that this was a longer summary of the Laws:Really what I am asking is how could the pious law abiding king Josiah have been surprised apparently when the discovered Law was unread. Surprised they'd found a copy. Surprised that, in spite of his living with its precepts there was so much more: more deapth, more meaning, more interconnection, more relevance ... .
Like had he not really known what the Law had said, No, like he knew, but he was surprised at how much he was missing. See all my above.or was this a newly created set of new rules. Absolutely not! You need to get past this Christian concept that God just changed His mind, and His rules whenever He felt like it! There was a progressive revelation in , which is clearly delineated. But once completed, and finalized, it became immutable! It has not been changed by God since. Man, in particular the church, yes- both by misinterpretation and by outright rewriting it to suit themselves. But not only the church or even Gentiles. Look at the Samaritans, who rewrote parts of so they could worship on Mt. Gerazim.It seems a strange conflictual issue. Maybe when Josephus described Josiah as law abiding and pious, he meant that the king was law abiding to the extent that the king knew the Law. I'd say that is what Jo meant, except that it is the truth and you know what I think of Ol'Jo and the truth! Maclaren's Exposition theorizes: Benson's Commentary theorizes: But it is much disputed, whether it was the whole Pentateuch, emphatically called ה תורה, he , the law, or only Deuteronomy, or even barely the 28th, 29th, 30th, and 31st chapters of that book. Josephus, by calling it the sacred books of Moses, seems to declare entirely for the former; as do far the greater number of Jews and Christians.Barnes' Notes argues that the discovered books were not forgeries because eg. the Samaritans had the independently preserved: Jamiesson-Faucet's commentary theorizes:The hypothesis that the book discovered was a summary of reminds me of the theory that the book was Deuteronomy, because I read that Deuteronomy summarizes the laws of the preceding books. Read it for yourself. Deuteronomy summarizes the Law and instructions in their final and condensed format. In Deuteronomy 31, Moses writes God's commands in a book, and God instructs: “Take this Book of the Law, and put it beside the ark of the covenant of the LORD your God, that it may be there as a witness against you;" It sounds like this was the book that Hilkiah found. 26 לָקֹ֗חַ אֵ֣ת סֵ֤פֶר הַתּוֹרָה֙ הַזֶּ֔ה וְשַׂמְתֶּ֣ם אֹת֔וֹ מִצַּ֛ד אֲר֥וֹן בְּרִית־יְהוָ֖ה אֱלֹהֵיכֶ֑ם וְהָֽיָה־שָׁ֥ם בְּךָ֖ לְעֵֽד׃
Deuteronomy 31:26 (ESV) “Take this Book of the Law and put it by the side of the ark of the covenant of the Lord your God, that it may be there for a witness against you.The underlined part in the Hebrew version is הַתּוֹרָה֙, ha'. It is very simple: it was not some legal document, but itself we are talking about here. The misunderstanding comes from a complete lack of knowledge of things Jewish, commentators desire to sound knowledgeable (both ego driven and so they can sell more commentaries), and the idea of the so called "New Testament," which means a new Greek legal document. Bull! It is a Hebrew document, start to finish, there is nothing "new" therein, and like itself it contains instructions.
The Cambridge Bible for Schools and Colleges says:The Pulpit Commentary agrees with Josephus' reading that the discovered book was the :Keilar and Delitzsch's commentary says about Josiah: "Affable Geek" writes on Christianity Stackexchange: Also on Christianity Stackexchange, thingy Harfield theorizes that the discovered book was a forgery: The Haaretz article "Who Wrote the ?" comments:"Shaphan claimed that the book had been found in the Temple while the priests were cleaning up the storeroom." And his point would be ... ?
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Post by rakovsky on Nov 28, 2019 23:17:54 GMT -8
Also for Question 5, Ellicott's Commentary notes that 2 Kings 22 literally says, "the book of the have I found." This implies that the priest found a particular book. "Books" then, as you know, were scrolls, and all of could be placed on one scroll: סֵפֶר çêpher, say'-fer; or (feminine) סִפְרָה çiphrâh; (Psalm 56:8 (H9)), from H5608; properly, writing (the art or a document); by implication, a book:—bill, book, evidence, × learn(-ed) (-ing), letter, register, scroll.The idea of books is western, and can refer to as a book, or any one of the 5 books which makes it up. So we must be careful of placing our own ideas on what is said (a thing the church- all of them- is very bad about), and further about transposition of terms within our own system. Cepher in Judaism is a scroll. That's probably what was found. Great point by you above for Question 5. 2 Kings 22:8 has Hilkiah say that he found Sepher hatōwrāh (הַתּוֹרָ֛ה), literally, the Writing/scroll/book/document of the Law. That sounds like "Scroll of the ", ie a Scroll. Another that came up for me by reading the Hebrew was the issue there in that the commentaries that I quoted had said that this chapter refers to " the book of the law", and they concluded that this meant that Hilkiah was already familiar with "the" book's existence, by introducing it with the word "the". Grammatically, we use "the" to refer to nouns with which we are already familiar. But here in 2 Kings 22:8, it just says "book of the Law". Hilkiah doesn't introduce the book to Shaphan as "the book of the Law". It says literally "And Hilkiah the high priest said unto Shaphan the scribe, I have found book of the law in the house of the LORD. And Hilkiah gave the book to Shaphan, and he read it." I don't know if you can shed any light on this, but it looks to me like those commentaries were just going by the English translation.
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Post by rakovsky on Nov 28, 2019 23:36:11 GMT -8
Also for Question 5, Jamiesson-Faucet's commentary theorizes:The hypothesis that the book discovered was a summary of reminds me of the theory that the book was Deuteronomy, because I read that Deuteronomy summarizes the laws of the preceding books. Read it for yourself. Deuteronomy summarizes the Law and instructions in their final and condensed format. In Deuteronomy 31, Moses writes God's commands in a book, and God instructs: “Take this Book of the Law, and put it beside the ark of the covenant of the LORD your God, that it may be there as a witness against you;" It sounds like this was the book that Hilkiah found. 26 לָקֹ֗חַ אֵ֣ת סֵ֤פֶר הַתּוֹרָה֙ הַזֶּ֔ה וְשַׂמְתֶּ֣ם אֹת֔וֹ מִצַּ֛ד אֲר֥וֹן בְּרִית־יְהוָ֖ה אֱלֹהֵיכֶ֑ם וְהָֽיָה־שָׁ֥ם בְּךָ֖ לְעֵֽד׃
Deuteronomy 31:26 (ESV) “Take this Book of the Law and put it by the side of the ark of the covenant of the Lord your God, that it may be there for a witness against you.The underlined part in the Hebrew version is הַתּוֹרָה֙, ha'. It is very simple: it was not some legal document, but itself we are talking about here. Deuteronomy 31 in context suggests to me that you are right that "this book of the " refers to the book/scroll that Moses had written, the whole scroll of : Thanks for bearing with me.
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Post by rakovsky on Nov 28, 2019 23:55:54 GMT -8
Also for Question 5, Also on Christianity Stackexchange, thingy Harfield theorizes that the discovered book was a forgery: ===================================================================== A very similar instance is reported in the Book of Jeremiah, demonstrating that this would not be the only case in which a document was hidden then 'found' by the priests in order to establish its antiquity and enable them to impress the king (who immediately saw through the ruse): Jeremiah 36:19-23: "Then said the princes unto Baruch, Go, hide thee, thou and Jeremiah; and let no man know where ye be. And they went in to the king into the court, but they laid up the roll in the chamber of Elishama the scribe, and told all the words in the ears of the king. So the king sent Jehudi to fetch the roll: and he took it out of Elishama the scribe's chamber. And Jehudi read it in the ears of the king, and in the ears of all the princes which stood beside the king. Now the king sat in the winterhouse in the ninth month: and there was a fire on the hearth burning before him. And it came to pass, that when Jehudi had read three or four leaves, he cut it with the penknife, and cast it into the fire that was on the hearth, until all the roll was consumed in the fire that was on the hearth."
In 'Ideas of Law and Legal Administration: a Semiotic Approach', published in The World of Ancient Israel (edited by R.E. Clements), page 193, Bernard S. Jackson agrees that the passage in Jeremiah suggests that the scroll found in the time of Josiah, just a few years earlier, had also been a ‘plant’. He says that Jeremiah has given us a vivid description of how it might have been done. Again I say- READ* IT*IN*CONTEXT!!!
Jeremiah 36:1-3 (ESV) In the fourth year of Jehoiakim the son of Josiah, king of Judah, this word came to Jeremiah from the Lord: “Take a scroll and write on it all the words that I have spoken to you against Israel and Judah and all the nations, from the day I spoke to you, from the days of Josiah until today. It may be that the house of Judah will hear all the disaster that I intend to do to them, so that every one may turn from his evil way, and that I may forgive their iniquity and their sin.”
This is about a scroll written by the prophet Jerimayah on instructions of God, NOT about itself, forgery or otherwise! Is it so hard to read for ourselves that we have to take the word of some self proclaimed expert on a FORUM? And that include me! Read and think and understand for yourself. If I or they are right, the only way you will really know it is to prove it yourself. I we, and in particular me, are wrong, the I/we need to be made aware of it. But moreover you/me/we do not need a bunch of false garbage clogging our memory.
Also allow me to point out, if a prophet of the Most High God writes something it is neither a forgery nor a document to be lightly burned because it scares or worries us, or because it crimps our style. He scares, worries, and restricts us for our own good. But He gives us free will in this lifetime. He will not be so lenient in the next. Choose this day who you will serve ... .
======================================================== The Haaretz article "Who Wrote the ?" comments:"Shaphan claimed that the book had been found in the Temple while the priests were cleaning up the storeroom." And his point would be ... ? Good analysis of Harfield's claim about Jeremiah 36. I missed that, Dan. The Haaretz article was theorizing that the book discovered was Deuteronomy and that Shaphan authored it. In fact, Shaphan might not have authored it of we consider that this incident was the basis for its composition. Instead, the text says that Hilkiah found it and showed it to Shaphan, which could suggest that Hilkiah authored it. Anyway, for reasons that we discussed, I think that the book was more likely the , and that the was already written. You can find the Haaretz article online on the Haaretz website with this heading:
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Post by alon on Nov 29, 2019 1:28:57 GMT -8
I never believed Moshe wrote the entire . I've given my view on the forum here before that he was commissioned to compile and led by ELohim he gathered existing documents, spoke with witnesses or had scribes do it, assigned different scribes to write different parts or sometimes to take dictation ... however he assigned the duties he oversaw and vetted it every step of the way. But that's my opinion. Academics are of the opinion there were at least 4 types of people who wrote , most of them saying these modifications took place over hundreds of years. I don't remember the specific types off hand, but one was (predictably) priests. However these "scholars" also give as evidence that some things happened much later, so the writer could not have known about it. Duh, what part of "Prophet of God" are these people missing? And yes, I imagine some of it was given to priests to write. I'd be very surprised if it wasn't.
Throughout the Bible, God never just dictated an entire book to someone. He gave visions, spoke to men, or allowed them to witness events. Godly men, they then as accurately as they could wrote about it. But their personality comes through in the writings. These men were formed for and raised up to the tasks they were given. God knows how to choose an author. And I believe was no exception.
This is why we have synoptic accounts. Each account is told from the perspective of its author, so we learn something different from each account of the same events. The Bible is a very personal book, just like our God is a very personal God. And it should be read with this in mind. My opinion.
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Post by alon on Nov 29, 2019 1:33:48 GMT -8
Another that came up for me by reading the Hebrew was the issue there in that the commentaries that I quoted had said that this chapter refers to " the book of the law", and they concluded that this meant that Hilkiah was already familiar with "the" book's existence, by introducing it with the word "the". Grammatically, we use "the" to refer to nouns with which we are already familiar. But here in 2 Kings 22:8, it just says "book of the Law". Hilkiah doesn't introduce the book to Shaphan as "the book of the Law". It says literally "And Hilkiah the high priest said unto Shaphan the scribe, I have found book of the law in the house of the LORD. And Hilkiah gave the book to Shaphan, and he read it." I don't know if you can shed any light on this, but it looks to me like those commentaries were just going by the English translation. And that's a problem. Languages do not translate directly, and often words like "the" are inserted at discretion of the translator to make the English more grammatically correct, or just to sound and read better.
No problem. Your questions stretch me, make me think. And at my age, that can be a good thing!
Dan
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